Poker question All in at the river


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Thibault de Vassal    (2009-01-15)
Poker question : All in at the river

Hi all,

I'm just not sure about this : When a player calls by all-in at the river, is he supposed to show his cards (just like in a pre-flop all-in) even if -in that case- he pays to see or is it a particular case ?!

In example :

In other words, is there a bug in the example above ?

Thanks in advance.

Thibault de Vassal    (2009-01-18 01:32:47)
Poker question

Finally, noone knows the answer ?!

Garvin Gray    (2009-01-18 13:57:42)
to which do you belong

Either that, or that the readers are not sure exactly what you are talking about, to which I am in the second category.

On possibly a related issue, when I click on the links below, the site opens a new window and tells me I have to log in again, but when I log in again, it sends me back to the my messages page. So I can not get to the page you mention from the link.

Thibault de Vassal    (2009-01-18 15:29:29)

Strange bug... what browser do you use ?! there may be a special setting for sessions management.

About the example above, you may also follow these links :

Garvin Gray    (2009-01-18 17:26:53)
rules question

Ok, what I was suspecting was the situation is in fact the case.

To clarify in different speak and to guarantee we are talking about the same situation.

Game 232- The river is Ad and Player 1 has gone all in for 55 chips.

You are now asking if player 2 calls, will player 2 have to show cards, is that correct?

Do I have all this correct?

Went for an internet search to see if there were any sites at least claiming official poker rules status and there were none from my searching.

In my opinion, Player 2 has called Player 1, so both players must show their cards.

Thibault de Vassal    (2009-01-18 18:08:59)

"Game 232- The river is Ad and Player 1 has gone all in for 55 chips."

True, actually I was confusing myself, my original post was not correct : Player 1 (Volker) raised (he was all in) and player 2 (myself) called. I'm not even sure in this case : should player 2 show his cards if player 1 wins ?

Now there is the case #2, let's imagine player 1 raises after the river, then player 2 calls (and he's all in), should player 2 show his cards even if player 1 wins ?

Garvin Gray    (2009-01-21 17:18:00)

Were these answers helpful?

Thibault de Vassal    (2009-01-21 21:59:16)

Hi Garvin... I'm afraid not :o|